Being a complete outsider to it, I should probably stay out of this, but it interests me, so here goes with a piece of amateur comparative theology. It arises from this story:
An ancient manuscript written in Egypt in 300AD purports to show that Judas Iscariot was not the betrayer who sold Jesus to his enemies for 30 pieces of silver, as the bible says.From another report:The apocryphal account of the last days of Jesus's life portrays Judas as a loyal disciple, who followed Jesus's orders in handing him over to the authorities and thus allowed him to fulfil the biblical prophecies of saving mankind.
In a key passage, Jesus compares Judas with the other disciples, saying, "You will exceed all of them. For you will sacrifice the man that clothes me." By helping Jesus get rid of his flesh, it suggests, Judas will help liberate the divine being within.Here's more:
Jesus entrusted Judas with a secret he did not reveal to any of his other disciples: That this world was not created by the one true God, but by a lesser, evil divinity as a place to entrap divine spirits.So Judas 'fulfilled a divine mission'. What I'm interested in is the following? Directly: wouldn't it be true of Judas that he fulfilled a divine mission even if he did betray Jesus? Indirectly: didn't everybody else responsible for Jesus's torment and death also play their part in fulfilling that divine mission?"The idea of this gospel is that humans have a divine spirit trapped within them that needed to escape their bodies and Jesus was just here temporarily and he also needed to escape and Judas provided him the way of doing it," said Ehrman [Bart Ehrman, of the University of North Carolina].
The thought was prompted by another line of argument with which I have a slightly greater familiarity. There is a strand of post-Holocaust Jewish theology according to which the Holocaust was a martyrdom of the Jewish people for straying into irreligious ways. Apart from other objections to it (Could a just God have presided over that? Were there not less terrible ways of achieving His purpose? Did it in fact achieve His purpose?), this interpretation of the destruction of European Jewry would seem to make Hitler and the Nazis an instrument of divine providence. That's a notion which other theologians, and other ordinary people, find a bit much.
Is there a comparable problem here for Christian theology? The question isn't rhetorical. I'm asking because I don't know. Are the tormentors and killers of Jesus Christ the instruments of a divine mission?
Update: See this follow-up.